From the post "We Have A Problem, Coulomb's Law" dated 20 Nov 14,
\(F_v=2\cfrac { qc^{ 2 } }{ x } e^{i\pi/2}\)
and from "Wrong, Wrong, Wrong" dated 25 May 15,
\(F=\int{F_v}\,d\,x\)
The force in the field due to a particle is,
\(F=2\int{\cfrac { qc^{ 2 } }{ x } }\,d\,x.={2{ qc^{ 2 } }{ ln(x) } }+C\)
where we have dropped the phase information, \(e^{i\pi/2}\).
but \(F=-\psi\), so,
\(\psi=-2{ qc^{ 2 } }{ ln(x) }+A\)
However, \(\psi\) cannot be less than zero. So, both \(F\) and \(\psi\) is valid up till \(\psi=0\).
This is not the inverse square law! And what happens to \(F\) after \(\psi=0\)?
