Sunday, April 20, 2014

Prime Probability

The probability that \({N}_{x}\) is a prime is given by

\(\prod _{ i=1 }^{ { P }_{ N }<{ N }_{ x }<{ P }_{ N+1 } }{    \frac { { P }_{ i }-1 }{ { P }_{ i }}=\prod _{ i }^{ { P }_{ N } }{ (1-\frac { 1 }{ { P }_{ i } }) }}  \) when \({ P }_{ N }={ N }_{ x }\) the associated probability is 1.

where \( { P }_{ N }\) is the \(Nth\) prime smaller but closest to or equal to \({ N }_{ x }\).

The expected value of  \({ N }_{ x }\) statistically is then,

\(E\left[ { N }_{ x } \right] =\sum _{ 1 }^{ x\rightarrow \infty  }{ ({ N }_{ x } \prod _{ i=1 }^{ { P }_{ N }<{ N }_{ x }<{ P }_{ N+1 } }{ \frac { { P }_{ i }-1 }{ { P }_{ i } }  }  } )\)

the summation is over all \({N}_{x}\) positive integer; and 1 not being a prime by definition.

\(E\left[ { N }_{ x } \right] =\sum _{ 2 }^{ x\rightarrow \infty  }{ ({ N }_{ x } \prod _{ i=1 }^{ { P }_{ N }<{ N }_{ x }<{ P }_{ N+1 } }{ \frac { { P }_{ i }-1 }{ { P }_{ i } }  }  } )\)

The starting value of 1 prove to be very troublesome as far as consistency is concern.  The value of \(\frac{1}{2}\) for \({P}_{2}\) can be argued as  the probability of any number \({N}_{x}\) being odd or even.  Strictly speaking \(2≮2\) and so \(?<2<2\) from the expression \({ P }_{ N }<{ N }_{ x }<{ P }_{ N+1 }\) does not hold.

Consider the term \( { P }_{ N }<{ N }_{ x }<{ P }_{ N+1 }\) , the numbers \({N}_{x}\) between
two consecutive primes \( { P }_{ N }, { P }_{ N+1 }\).  All these numbers will share the same probability of

\({\prod _{ 1 }^{ { N }_{ x } }{ (\frac { 1 }{ 2 } )(\frac { 2 }{ 3 } )(\frac { 4 }{ 5 } )(\frac { 6 }{ 7 } )...\frac{{P}_{N}-1}{{P}_{N}}}}\)

Some may argue that since such \({N}_{x}\) are between two consecutive primes, they are not primes and so have a probability of zero being prime.  The point is to calculate expected value \(E[{N}_{x}]\); \({N}_{x}\) is considered a random variable here. The expected value of \({N}_{x}\) being prime is not the average value of primes in a given set of prime numbers.