Remember the post "My Own Wave equation", dated 20 Nov 2014, where
\(\cfrac{\partial \psi}{\partial x}\cfrac{\partial \psi}{\partial t}=\cfrac{c^2p}{\sqrt{2}}.\cfrac{\partial^2\psi}{\partial x^2}.e^{-i\pi/4}\)
Why would a force on an object experience a delay in response? Such a delay was presented as an phase lag one-eight of a period, but what the frequency of the system?
When the object is subjected to a force, this force on the object increases from zero to some value \(F\). The rate of increase of this force is fitted to a sinusoidal \(sin(\omega t)\) such that their gradients at time \(t=0\) is the same,
\(\cfrac{d\, F}{d\,t}= \omega=2\pi f\)
which gives us the frequency, \(f\) And so the associated period, \(T\) is,
\(T=\cfrac{1}{f}={2\pi}\cfrac{d\, t}{d\,F}\)
And the initial delay before the object start to response to the force is,
\(d=\cfrac{T}{8}=\cfrac{\pi}{4}\cfrac{d\, t}{d\,F}\).
This delayed response was at one time called "inertia", but later was decided that it does not exist.
